Exam 220-601, Best IT Certification Training

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following backup types will reset the archive bit on files backed up? (Select TWO).

A. Copy

B. Full

C. Snapshot

D. Incremental

E. Differential

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following is the MOST important step in any disaster recovery plan?

A. Appropriate use of backup media and offsite storage

B. The disaster recovery testing process

C. Classifying systems according to operational impact

D. Use appropriate fire suppressant systems

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

A server crashed because it ran out of all free available disk space. After booting the server back up it is noticed that enhanced logging was enabled on the web server software months before. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the disk to run out of space?

A. The web server requires larger disk drives.

B. Traffic to the web server has increased.

C. Disks are not large enough for the web server software.

D. Log files are filling the disk.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array?

A. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive

B. (Number of drives - 2) X capacity of the smallest drive

C. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive

D. (Number of drives - 1) X capacity of the smallest drive

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following is the BEST command to use when determining the computer name of a remote Windows computer, when only the IP address is known?

A. netstat -e

B. nbtstat -a

C. nbtstat -e

D. netstat -a

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following are the benefits of performing a server baseline? (Select TWO). A+ Exams

A. Increases CPU utilization

B. Predicts trends for capacity planning

C. Increases fault tolerance

D. Provides load balancing

E. Assists in troubleshooting problems

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 1

A penetration test shows that almost all database servers were able to be compromised through a default database user account with the default password. Which of the following is MOST likely missing from the operational procedures?

A. Application hardening

B. OS hardening

C. Application patch management

D. SQL injection

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following is an example of verifying new software changes on a test system?

A. User access control

B. Patch management

C. Intrusion prevention

D. Application hardening

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following allows an attacker to identify vulnerabilities within a closed source software application?

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A. Fuzzing

B. Compiling

C. Code reviews

D. Vulnerability scanning

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following would an administrator do to ensure that an application is secure and all unnecessary services are disabled?

A. Baselining

B. Application hardening

C. Secure application coding

D. Patch management

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

A security administrator ensures that certain characters and commands entered on a web server are not interpreted as legitimate data and not passed on to backend servers. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Error and exception handling

B. Input validation

C. Determining attack surface

D. Data execution prevention

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6

A business-critical application will be installed on an Internet facing server. Which of the following is the BEST security control that should be performed in conjunction with updating the application to the MOST current version?

A. The firewall should be configured to allow the application to auto-update.

B. The firewall should be configured to prevent the application from auto-updating.

C. A port scan should be run against the application's server.

D. Vendor-provided hardening documentation should be reviewed and applied.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 1

A qualitative analysis identified a server crash as an internal project risk with a medium probability and high adverse impact to the project. The project manager decides to manage this risk by authorizing the purchase and installation of a tape backup unit for the server, to prevent the potential loss of documents. Which of the following risk response strategies was applied in this circumstance? A+ Exams

A. Acceptance
B. Transfer
C. Mitigation
D. Avoidance
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A project has been delayed due to an ongoing labor dispute. The project sponsor asks the project manager to transfer the risk to complete the project on time. Which of the following is a method of transferring the risk?
A. Delay the project
B. Change the project schedule
C. Outsource the project
D. Hire more resources
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
ASPI of 1.1 means that the project Is:
A. under-budget.
B. behind schedule.
C. ahead of schedule.
D. over-budget.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following is the BEST reason to conduct a feasibility analysis?
A. To ensure that risks are addressed during the project
B. To authorize a project
C. To gather technical data
D. To assign team member roles
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a stakeholder? (Select TWO). A+ Certificate

A. Anyone impacted negatively by the project.
B. Anyone who is in the company where the project is taking place.
C. Anyone who is interested in the project.
D. Anyone who negatively impacts the project.
E. Anyone impacted positively by the project.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following is a characteristic of a project charter?
A. Issued by the project manager with support from the project sponsor.
B. Links the project to the on-going work of the organization through a business plan.
C. Formally recognizes the existence or establishment of the project.
D. Provides low-level requirements for the project.
Answer: C

Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 1
If the EV is $3,000 and the AC is $4,000, which of the following is the CV for the project?
A. -$1,000
B. $1,000
C. -$3,000
D. $3,000
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
After a change control Board meeting, which of the following actions should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Notify the requester of the verdict.
B. Review the impact of proposed change.
C. Update the project scope statement.
D. Document the specific change request.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Changing the project schedule to prevent a known risk is an example of which of the following risk responses?
A. Mitigation
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
The purpose of the WBS is to:
A. maintain standards compliance.
B. manage change requests.
C. determine work packages.
D. aid in version control.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following would be the MOST important objective of a kick-off meeting? (Select TWO).
A. To educate team members on what will be expected
B. To give official notification for the project
C. To inform the project sponsor on what will be expected
D. To create a work breakdown structure (WBS)
E. To develop the statement of work (SOW)
Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following components is included in a transition plan?
A. Ownership
B. Quality metrics
C. Project budget
D. Quality baseline
Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is the BEST point for a project manager to join a project?
A. Project initiation
B. Project pre-planning
C. Project planning
D. Project executing
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following is the BEST point for a project manager to join a project? A+ Exams

A. Project initiation
B. Project pre-planning
C. Project planning
D. Project executing
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 1

A new Samba server (Version 3) has been setup with a brand new colour laser printer. The printer is attached to the parallel port and is setup using CUPS. What share must you setup in your smb.conf file to allow client computers to download the new drivers?

A. [printers]

B. [print$]

C. [printer$]

D. [cups$]

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

The SAMBADOM domain has been added as a trusted account to an existing domain called WIN3K. Which command should be run on the Samba server in order to establish the trusted relationship to the WIN3K domain?

A. net rpc trustdom add WIN3K

B. net rpc addtrust WIN3K

C. net rpc trustdom establish WIN3K

D. net rpc trustdom establish SAMBA

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

By default, on what port does SWAT listen?

A. 901

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

By specifying the _________ parameter in smb.conf and assigning it an appropriate value, Samba will create Machine Trust Accounts automatically when the client joins the domain.

A. ADDMACHINESCRIPT

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Which command typed on a Samba 3 server will print out the local SID?

A. net get sid localhost

B. net getlocalsid

C. net getsid

D. net rpc get localsid

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6

What command will test the file /root/smb.conf for internal correctness? (Enter the command and any required options or parameters)

A. TESTPARM/ROOT/SMB.CONF

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

When a Windows domain controller is used, which of the following is assigned a Windows Security Identifier?

A. Users

B. Servers

C. Groups

D. Only A and C above

E. All of the above

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 8

The command _______ is used on a Samba 3 server to modify the SSID in an existing NT profile file called NTUser.DAT.

A. PROFILES

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9

What must be done to allow only users of the devel system group to access a share?

A. In the smb.conf file, set valid users = @devel

B. In the smb.conf file, set valid groups = @devel

C. In the smb.conf file, set valid groups = devel

D. chgrp the directory on the Samba server to the devel group, and then set the GID bit on the directory. A+ Exams

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 1
You installed a beta rpm package, but are experiencing some problems with it. How can you remove this package?

A. rpm-qe rpmname
B. rpm-v-remove rpmname
C. rpm-r rpmname
D. rpm-d rpmname
E. rpm-ev rpmname

Answer: D
Explanation: To uninstall the package, we use the rpm -ev rpmname or rpm --erase rpmname
To install package: rpm _ivh rpname : where -I means install, -v means verbose, -h means display the Hash marks.

To Upgrade rpm: rpm _Uvh rpnam e: where _U eans Upgrade.
To Freshen Upgrade : rpm -Fvh rpmname

QUESTION NO: 2
Which file is used by Id.so to find libraries quickly without actually having to search the directories in its library path?

A. /etc/Id.so.cache
B. /etc/Id.so.conf
C. /etc/Id.so
D. /var/ld/cache
E. /var/.cache

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
When installing XWindows the monitor wasn't recognised but now a data sheet with its specification is available. Which xorg.conf section must be edited to specify the correct values for several variables?

A. Screen
B. Monitor
C. Border
D. Modeline
E. Device

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?

A. rpm --update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm --force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname

Answer: C
Explanation: Upgrades, but only if the package installed.

QUESTION NO: 5
User Joseph has successfully extracted and compiled a program from source code. Installing the binaries produces errors. What is the most likely reason? A+ Exams

A. The source code was compiled for a different CPU.
B. The permissions set in the /usr/bin directory are wrong.
C. The binaries require root privileges to be installed
D. The wrong prefix was used during configuration of the source code.

Answer: C
Explanation: The most likely reason would be to low privileges for the installation, although

there might be a lot of other reasons. Best thing to do is to examine any logfiles realated to the installation attempt.

QUESTION NO: 1

A technician plugged in an external HDD. A message appears and shows that the device can perform faster. Which of the following will cause this message?

A. The computer has USB 1.1 ports.

B. The computer has USB 2.0 ports.

C. The external HDD is using FireWire.

D. The external HDD is using USB 1.1.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

A workstation that is reporting memory errors that started when a memory upgrade was completed which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the errors?

A. The new memory was installed in the second bank and runs at a lower speed than bank one

B. A different brand of memory was installed in bank two.

C. The memory stick was larger than the memory stick already installed.

D. The memory stick installed in bank two was smaller than the memory stick in bank one.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

Where would a technician go lo turn off UAC in Windows Vista?

A. Control Panel

B. Active Directory Users and Computers

C. Computer Management

D. Run> Command prompt > NET STOP UAC

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

A technician is checking on a printer that is frequently jamming. The jams always consist of multiple papers becoming stuck. The paper in the printer was just reloaded this morning. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the jams?

A. The drum is old and needs to be replaced.

B. The fuser is not coming up to the proper temperature.

C. The paper tray rollers are too tight.

D. The paper is damp due to humidity.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

For A+ Exams, A lab is setup with removable drives to train users in multiple operating systems. A user states that the lab computer will not boot up and receives an error about no operating system found. All of the cables are plugged in securely to the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause that a user cannot boot up the workstation?

A. The removable drive is not locked.

B. The monitor is not functioning.

C. The lab network is down.

D. The memory is not seated property

Answer: A

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All the goal of coaching and certification of employees in right now's minimize throat pc industry is to create a benchmark for the technicians and support staffs and also to push up their degree of expertise even increased to satisfy the business standards. Large firms such as Cisco ,Novell, HP have made it mandatory for its employees to have A+ certification added up in their resumes, which easily makes it probably the most sought after certifications these days.

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